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Wednesday, 27 July 2022

UGC NET Solved Previous Questions Paper-1 General Subject for all Candidates

 

                                                      UGC NET Solved Question Paper -1

                                                                        December -2018


1. Which among the following is the best field of study to improve the ability of students Experiment and analyse?

1. History

2. Languages

3. Economics

4. Science

Answer: (4)

2. Which among the following reflects best the quality of teaching in a classroom?

1. Through the use of many teaching aids in the classroom

2. Through the quality of questions asked by students in classroom

3. Through full attendance in the classroom

4. Through observation of silence by the students in classroom

Answer: (2)www.netugc.com

 3. Artifacts that arise and affect the internal validity in research are:

(a) History

(b) Randomization

(c) Maturity

(d) Instrumentation

(e) Experimental mortality

(f) Matching

1. (a), (b), (c) and (d)

2. (b), (c), (d) and (f)

3. (a), (c), (d) and (e)

4. (d), (e), (f) and (b)

Answer: (3)

 4. Formulation of a research problem depends on:

(a) What is the object behind the researcher’s choice?

(b) What are the specific questions?

(c) What is the conceptual model?

(d) What negative factors to research upon?

(e) Reasons for unlimiting the study.

(f) Construction of hypotheses.

1. (a), (c), (e) and (f)

2. (c), (d), (e) and (f)

3. (b), (c), (d) and (e)

4. (a), (b), (c) and (f)

Answer: (4)

 5. Among the following which one is not an instructional material?

1. Audio podcast

2. YouTube video

3. Printed study guide

4. Overhead projector

Answer: (4)

 6. Suppose as a teacher you are training your students in public speaking and debate. Which among the following is most difficult to develop among the students?

1. Control over emotions

2. Concept formulation

3. Using / selecting appropriate language

4. Voice modulation

Answer: (1)

 7. Which among the following is best advantage of choice based credit system?

1. Shift in focus from teacher-centric to student-centric education

2. Improving classroom attendance

3. Helping teacher to complete syllabus on time

4. Reducing examination anxiety among students

Answer: (1)

 8. The components of a research design are:

(a) Comparison

(b) Control

(c) Reactivity

(d) Manipulation

(e) Non representativeness

(f) Generalization

1. (c), (d), (e) and (f)

2. (a), (c), (e) and (f)

3. (b), (c), (d) and (e)

4. (a), (b), (d) and (f)

Answer: (4)

 9. The four major operations in scientific research are:

(a) Demonstration of co-variance

(b) Elimination of spurious relations

(c) Sequencing in terms of time order

(d) Self-education

(e) Operationalization of personal choice

(f) Theorization

Codes:

1. (a), (b), (c) and (d)

2. (c), (d), (e) and (f)

3. (a), (b), (c) and (f)

4. (b), (c), (d) and (e)

Answer: (3)

 10. A variable that is manipulated is known as:

1. Dependent variable

2. Control variable

3. Independent variablewww.netugc.com

4. Confounding variable

Answer: (3)

11. The next term in the series 0, 1, 9, 36, 100, ______ is:

1. 216

2. 164

3. 196

4. 225

Answer: (4)

 12. In the digital era, there is a fear that classroom communication may result in:

1. Passive adaptation

2. Quick adaptation

3. Stimulation

4. Over-stimulation

Answer: (4)

 13. Under which of the conditions an argument may be valid? Select the correct answer from the code given below:

Statements:

(a) When its conclusion and premises are true

(b) Even when its conclusion and one or more of its premises are false

(c) Only when its conclusion is true

1. (c) alone

2. (a) and (b)

3. (a) and (c)

4. (a) alone

Answer: (2)

 14. Jenifer’s father-in-law is my brother. Helen is a grand-daughter of my mother. How is Helen related to Jenifer?

1. Daughter-in-law

2. Sister

3. Sister-in-law

4. Mother

Answer: (3)

 15. Truth and falsity are attributes of:

1. Debates

2. Propositions

3. Opinions

4. Arguments

Answer: (2)

16. Negative criticism as an element of classroom communication will lead to:

(a) External sympathy

(b) Justification

(c) Defensiveness

(d) De-motivation

(e) Supportive listening

(f) Confrontational empathy

1. (b), (c) and (d)

2. (d), (e) and (f)

3. (a), (b) and (c)

4. (c), (d) and (e)

Answer: (1)

 17. The rhetorical approach in classroom communication considers teachers as _____ agents of students.

1. Influencing

2. Non-Official

3. Academic

4. Official

Answer: (1)

 18. Assertion (A): Teacher communication is central to classroom management.

Reason (R): Teacher communication behaviors should not be used to regulate the classroom Behavior of students.

1. (A) is false, but (R) is true.

2. Both (A) and (R) are true.

3. Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

4. (A) is true, but (R) is false

Answer: (4)

 19. Among the following, there are two statements which can’t be true together, but can be false together. Select the code that represents them.

Statements:

(a) All poets are dreamers.

(b) No poets are dreamers.

(c9 Some poets are dreamers.

(d) Some poets are not dreamers.

1. (a) and (b)

2. (b) and (d)

3. (a) and (d)

4. (c) and (d)

Answer: (1)

 20. Non-verbal communication is considered:

1. Formal

2 . Culture-free

3. Informal

4. Precise

Answer: (3)

 21. Given below are two premises (a) and (b). Four conclusions are drawn from them. Select the code that states validly drawn conclusion(s). [Taking the premises individually or jointly]www.netugc.com

Premises:

(a) All judges are lawyers.

(b) No doctors are lawyers.

Conclusions:

(1) No lawyers are doctors.

(2) No doctor are judges.

(3) All lawyers are judges.

(4) Some doctor are judges.

1. (1) and (3)

2. (1) and (2)

3. (1) and (4)

4. (2) and (3)

Answer: (2)

 22. If ABODE is coded as ADRHJ, then the code for AGRO will be:

1. AIVX

2. AIUS

3. AIST

4. AVCD

Answer: (2)

 23. Choose the word which is different from the rest:

1. Mount Kilimanjaro

2. Shivalik Hills

3. Aravali Hills

4. Nilgiri Hills

Answer: (1)

 24. Which one of the following can be validly inferred from the proposition – “all animals are wild”?

1. No non-animals are wild.

2. Some animals are not wild.

3. No animals are wild.

4. Some animals are wild.

Answer: (4)

 25. The next term in the letter series DEF, HIJ, LMN, PQR, TUV, ______ is

1. XYZ

2. WYZ

3. WXY

4. YZA

Answer: (1)


Thursday, 14 July 2022

UGC NET Solved Previous Questions Paper-1 General Subject for all Candidates

 

                                                           UGC NET Solved Question Paper -1

                                                                           July-2018

                    

1. Which of the following set of statements best describes the nature and objectives of teaching?

(a) Teaching and learning are integrally related.

(b) There is no difference between teaching and training.

(c) Concern of all teaching is to ensure some kind of transformation in students.

(d) All good teaching is formal in nature.

(e) A teacher is a senior person.

(f) Teaching is a social act whereas learning is a personal act.

Code:

(1) (a), (b) and (d)

(2) (b), (c) and (e)

(3) (a), (c) and (f)

(4) (d), (e) and (f)

Answer: (3)

 

2. Which of the following learner characteristics is highly related to effectiveness of teaching?

(1) Prior experience of the learner

(2) Educational status of the parents of the learner

(3) Peer groups of the learner

(4) Family size from which the learner comes.

Answer: (1)

 

3. In the two sets given below Set –I indicates methods of teaching while Set –II provides the basic requirements for success/effectiveness. Match the two sets and indicate your answer by choosing from the code:

 

Set – I (Method of teaching)

Set – II Instructional procedure (Basic requirements for success/effectiveness)

(a) Lecturing

(i) Small step presentation with feedback provided

(b) Discussion in groups

(ii) Production of large number of ideas

(c) Brainstorming

(iii) Content delivery in a lucid language

(d) Programmed

(iv) Use of teaching-aids

 

(v) Theme based interaction among participants

 

Code:

(a)        (b)        (c)        (d)

(1)        (i)         (ii)        (iii)       (iv)

(2)        (ii)        (iii)       (iv)       (v)

(3)        (iii)       (v)        (ii)        (i)

(4)        (iv)       (ii)        (i)         (iii)

Answer: (3)

 

4. From the list of evaluation procedures given below identify those which will be called ‘formative evaluation’. Indicate your answer by choosing from the code:

(a) A teacher awards grades to students after having transacted the course work.

(b) During interaction with students in the classroom, the teacher provides corrective feedback.

(c) The teacher gives marks to students on a unit test.

(d) The teacher clarifies to doubts of students in the class itself.

(e) The overall performance of a student’s us reported to parents at every three months interval.

(f) The learner’s motivation is raised by the teacher through a question-answer session.

Codes:

(1) (a), (b) and (c)

www.netugc.com

(2) (b), (c) and (d)

(3) (a), (c) and (e)

(4) (b), (d) and (f)

Answer: (4)

 

5. Assertion (A): All teaching should aim at ensuring learning.

Reason (R): All learning results from teaching.

Choose the correct answer from the following code:

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(2) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

(4) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

Answer: (3)

 

6. There are two sets given below. Set – I specifies the types of research, while Set –II indicates their characteristics. Match the two and given your answer by selecting the appropriate code.

Set – I (Research types)

Set – II (Characteristics)

(a) Fundamental research

(i) Finding out the extent of perceived impact of an intervention

(b) Applied research

(ii) Developing an effective explanation through theory building

(c) Action research

(iii) Improving an existing situation through use of interventions

(d) Evaluative research

(iv) Exploring the possibility of a theory for use in various situations

 

(v) Enriching technological resources

Codes:

(a)        (b)        (c)        (d)

(1)        (ii)        (iv)       (iii)       (i)

(2)        (v)        (iv)       (iii)       (ii)

(3)        (iii)       (ii)        (iii)       (iv)

4          (ii)        (iii)       (iv)       (v)

Answer: (1)

 

7. Which of the sets of activities best indicate the cyclic nature of action research strategy?

(1) Reflect, Observe, Plan, Act

(2) Observe, Act, Reflect, Plan

(3) Act, Plan, Observe, Reflect

(4) Plan, Act, Observe, Reflect

Answer: (4)

 

8. Which of the following sequence of research steps is nearer to scientific method?

(1) Suggested solution of the problem, Deducing the consequences of the solution, Perceiving the problem situation, Location of the difficulty and testing the solutions.

(2) Perceiving the problem situation, Locating the actual problem and its definition, Hypothesizing, Deducing the consequences of the suggested solution and Testing the hypothesis in action.

(3) Defining a problem, Identifying the causes of the problem, Defining a population, Drawing a sample, Collecting data and Analysing results.

(4) Identifying the causal factors, Defining the problem, Developing a hypothesis, Selecting a sample, Collecting data and arriving at generalization and Conclusions.

Answer: (2)

 

9. The problem of ‘research ethics’ is concerned with which aspect of research activities?

(1) Following the prescribed format of a thesis

(2) Data analysis through qualitative or quantitative technique

(3) Defining the population of research

(4) Evidence based research reporting

Answer: (4)

 

10. In which of the following activities, potential for nurturing creative and critical thinking is relatively greater?

(1) Preparing research summary

(2) Presenting a seminar paper

(3) Participation in research conference

(4) Participation in a workshop

Answer: (3)

11. Differentiation between acceptance and non-acceptance of certain stimuli in classroom communication is the basis of:

(1) Selective expectation of performance

(2) Selective affiliation to peer groups

(3) Selective attention

(4) Selective morality

Answer: (3)

 

12. Assertion (A): The initial messages to students in the classroom by a teacher need not be critical to establish interactions later.

Reason (R): More control over the communication process means more control over what the students are learning.

Codes:

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(2) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

(4) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

Answer: (4)

 

13. Assertion (A): To communicate well in the classroom is a natural ability.

Reason (R): Effective teaching in the classroom demands knowledge of the communication process.

Code:

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(2) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

(4) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

Answer: (4)

 

14. Assertion (A): Classroom communication is a transactional process.

Reason (R): A teacher does not operate under the assumption that students’ responses are purposive. Select the correct code for your answer:

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(2) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

(4) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

Answer: (3)

 

15. Which of the following set of statements is correct for describing the human communication process?

(a) Non-verbal communication can stimulate ideas.

www.netugc.com

(b) Communication is a learnt ability.

(c) Communication is not a universal panacea.

(d) Communication cannot break-down.

(e) More communication means more effective learning by students.

(f) Value of what is learnt through classroom communication is not an issue for students.

Codes:

(1) (a), (c), (e) and (f)

(2) (b), (d), (e) and (f)

(3) (a), (b), (c) and (d)

(4) (a), (d), (e) and (f)

Answer: (3)

16.  The next term in the series -1, 5, 15, 29, ________, … is

(1) 36

(2) 47

(3) 59

(4) 63

Answer: (2)

 

17. The next term in the series: ABD, DGK, HMS, MTB, SBL, ________, … is:

(1) ZKU

(2) ZCA

(3) ZKW

(4) ZKU

Answer: (3)

 

18. If VARANASI is coded as WCUESGZQ, then the code of KOLKATA will be:

(1) LOQOZEH

(2) HLZEOOQ

(3) ZELHOQO

(4) LQOOFZH

Answer: (4)

 

19. Introducing, Rakesh to her husband a women said, “His brother’s father is the only son of my grandfather”. The woman is related to Rakesh as:

(1) Aunt

(2) Mother

(3) Sister

(4) Daughter

Answer: (3)

 

20. Two numbers are in the ratio 2: 5. If 16 is added to both the numbers, their ratio becomes 1: 2. The numbers are:

(1) 16, 40

(2) 20, 50

(3) 28, 70

(4) 32, 80

Answer: (4)

21. Superiority of intellect depends upon its power of concentration on one theme in the same way as a concave mirror collects all the rays that strike upon it into one point.

(1) Mathematical

(2) Psychological

(3) Analogical

(4) Deductive

Answer: (3)

 

22. Given below are two premises (A and B). Four conclusions are drawn from them. Select the code that states validity drawn conclusion (s) (taking the premises individually or jointly). Premises:

(A) Most of the dancers are physically fit.

(B) Most of the singers are dancers.

Conclusions:

(a) Most of the singers are physically fit.

(b) Most of the dancers are singers.

(c) Most of the physically fit persons are dancers.

(d) Most of the physically fit persons are singers.

Code:

(1) (a) and (b)

(2) (b) and (c)

(3) (c) and (d)

(4) (d) and (a)

Answer: (2)

 23. Which one among the following is a presupposition in inductive reasoning?

(1) Law of identity

(2) Unchangeability in nature

(3) Harmony in nature

(4) Uniformity of nature

Answer: (4)

 24. If the proposition ‘domestic animals are hardly ferocious’ is taken to be false, which of the following proposition/propositions can be claimed to be certainly true? Select the correct code:

Propositions:

(a) All domestic animals are ferocious.

(b) Most of the domestic animals are ferocious.

(c) No domestic animal is ferocious.

(d) Some domestic animals are non-ferocious.

Code:

(1) (a) and (b)

(2) (a) only

(3) (c) and (d)

(4) (b) only

Answer: (1)

25. Which one of the following statements is not correct in the context of Venn diagram method?

(1) It is a method of testing the validity of arguments.

(2) It represents both the premises of a syllogism in one diagram.

(3) It requires two overlapping circles for the two premises of a standard-form categorical syllogism.

(4) It can be used to represent classes as well as propositions.

Answer: (3)

26. Which of the following statements, regarding the term ICT is/are TRUE? P: ICT is an acronym that stands for Indian Classical Technology. Q: Converging technologies that exemplify ICT include the merging of audio-visual, telephone and computer networks through a common cabling system.

(1) P Only

(2) Q Only

(3) P and Q

(4) Neither P nor Q

Answer: (2)

 27. A new Laptop has been produced that weighs less, is smaller and uses less power previous Laptop models. Which of the following technologies has been used to accomplish this?

(1) Universal Serial Bus Mouse

(2) Faster Random Access Memory

(3) Blu Ray Drive

(4) Solid State Hard Drive

Answer: (4)

 28. Given the following email fields, which of the email addresses will ‘swami’ be able to see when he receives the message? Mail-

To…    ram@test. com

Cc…    raj@test. com; ravi@test.com

Bcc…  swami@test. com; rama@test. com

Codes:

(1) ram@test. com

(2) ram@test. com; raj@test. com; ravi@test. com

(3) ram@test. com; rama@test. com

(4) ram@test. com; rama@test. com; raj@test. com; ravi@test. com

Answer: (2)

 29. Put the following units of storage into the correct order, starting with the smallest unit first and going down to the largest unit:

(a) Kilobyte

(b) byte

(c) Megabyte

(d) Terabyte

(e) Gigabyte

(f) Bit

Give your answer from the following code:

(1) (f), (b), (a), (c), (d), (e)

(2) (f), (b), (a), (d), (e), (c)

(3) (f), (b), (a), (c), (e), (d)

(4) (f), (b), (a), (d), (c), (e)

Answer: (3)

 30. With regard to computer memory, which of the following statement (s) is/are TRUE? P: Read Only Memory (ROM) is ‘volatile’ memory. Q: Random Access Memory (RAM) is ‘volatile’ memory. R: Secondary Memory is ‘volatile’ memory.

www.netugc.com

(1) P only

(2) Q only

(3) P and Q only

(4) P and R only

Answer: (2)

31.  ‘Fly ash’ produced in thermal power plants is an ecofriendly resource for use in:

(a) Agriculture as micro-nutrient

(b) Wasteland development

(c) Dam and water holding structures

(d) Brick industry

Choose the correct answer from the code given below:

(1) (a), (b) and (d) only

(2) (b), (c) and (d) Only

(3) (a), (c) and (d) Only

(4) (a), (b), (c) and (d)

Answer: (4)

 32. Which of the following types of natural disasters has no definite beginning and end?

(1) Earthquakes

(2) Landsides

(3) Hurricanes

(4) Droughts

Answer: (4)

 33. Assertion (A): Indoor air pollution is serious hazard.

Reason (R): The dispersal of air pollutants is rather limited in indoor environment. Choose the correct answer from the code given below:

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

(2) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

(3) (A) is true and (R) is false.

(4) Both (A) and (R) are false.

Answer: (1)

 34. In terms of their contribution to the total power generation in India, Identify the correct sequence of energy sources – Thermal Power Plants (TPP), Large Hydropower Projects (LHP), Nuclear Energy (NE) and Renewable Energy (RE) which includes solar energy, wind energy, biomass and small hydropower projects.

(1) TPP > RE > LHP > NE

(2) TPP > LHP > RE > NE

(3) LHP > TPP > RE > NE

(4) LHP > TPP > NE > RE

Answer: (1)

 35. Which of the following is considered as major source of pollution in rivers of India?

(1) Unregulated small scale industry

(2) Untreated sewage

(3) Agricultural run-off

(4) Thermal power plants

Answer: (2)

 36. India has the largest Higher Education System in the World after:

(a) The United States of America

(b) Australia

(c) China

(d) United Kingdom (UK)

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

(1) (a), (b), (c) and (d)

(2) (a), (b) and (c) only

(3) (a), (c) and (d) only

(4) (a) and (c) only

Answer: (4)

 37. Prime Minister Research Fellowship is for students pursuing Ph. D programme in:

(1) State and Central Universities

(2) Central Universities, IISc, IITs, NITs, IISERs and IIITs

(3) IISc, IITs, NITs, IISERs, IIITs, State and Central Universities

(4) IITs and IISc

Answer: (4)

 38. Leader of the opposition is a member of committees which select:

(a) The central information Commissioner

(b) The Central Vigilance Commissioner

(c) The Chairperson of National Human Rights Commission

(d) The Chairperson of National Commission for women

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

(1) (a), (b), (c) and (d)

(2) (a), (b) and (c) only

(3) (a), (c) and (d) only

(4) (a), (b) and (d) only

Answer: (2)

 39. Which of the following statements are correct about gender budgeting?

(a) It is separates budget addressing the specific needs of women.

(b) It assesses the impact of government budget on women.

(c) It is an accounting exercise.

(d) It is another budgeting innovation.

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

(1) (b) and (d) only

www.netugc.com

(2) (a) and (d) only

(3) (a), (c) and (d) only

(4) (a) and (b) only

Answer: (1)

 40. Which of the following are the barriers to citizen-centric administration in India?

(a) Wooden and inflexible attitude of the civil servants

(b) Ineffective implementation of laws and rules

(c) Awareness of rights and duties of citizens

(d) Lack of job opportunities for the youth Select the correct answer from the code given below:

(1) (a), (b), (c) and (d)

(2) (a), (b) and (c) only

(3) (a), (b) and (d) only

(4) (a) and (b) only