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Thursday, 14 July 2022

UGC NET Solved Previous Questions Paper-1 General Subject for all Candidates

 

                                                           UGC NET Solved Question Paper -1

                                                                           July-2018

                    

1. Which of the following set of statements best describes the nature and objectives of teaching?

(a) Teaching and learning are integrally related.

(b) There is no difference between teaching and training.

(c) Concern of all teaching is to ensure some kind of transformation in students.

(d) All good teaching is formal in nature.

(e) A teacher is a senior person.

(f) Teaching is a social act whereas learning is a personal act.

Code:

(1) (a), (b) and (d)

(2) (b), (c) and (e)

(3) (a), (c) and (f)

(4) (d), (e) and (f)

Answer: (3)

 

2. Which of the following learner characteristics is highly related to effectiveness of teaching?

(1) Prior experience of the learner

(2) Educational status of the parents of the learner

(3) Peer groups of the learner

(4) Family size from which the learner comes.

Answer: (1)

 

3. In the two sets given below Set –I indicates methods of teaching while Set –II provides the basic requirements for success/effectiveness. Match the two sets and indicate your answer by choosing from the code:

 

Set – I (Method of teaching)

Set – II Instructional procedure (Basic requirements for success/effectiveness)

(a) Lecturing

(i) Small step presentation with feedback provided

(b) Discussion in groups

(ii) Production of large number of ideas

(c) Brainstorming

(iii) Content delivery in a lucid language

(d) Programmed

(iv) Use of teaching-aids

 

(v) Theme based interaction among participants

 

Code:

(a)        (b)        (c)        (d)

(1)        (i)         (ii)        (iii)       (iv)

(2)        (ii)        (iii)       (iv)       (v)

(3)        (iii)       (v)        (ii)        (i)

(4)        (iv)       (ii)        (i)         (iii)

Answer: (3)

 

4. From the list of evaluation procedures given below identify those which will be called ‘formative evaluation’. Indicate your answer by choosing from the code:

(a) A teacher awards grades to students after having transacted the course work.

(b) During interaction with students in the classroom, the teacher provides corrective feedback.

(c) The teacher gives marks to students on a unit test.

(d) The teacher clarifies to doubts of students in the class itself.

(e) The overall performance of a student’s us reported to parents at every three months interval.

(f) The learner’s motivation is raised by the teacher through a question-answer session.

Codes:

(1) (a), (b) and (c)

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(2) (b), (c) and (d)

(3) (a), (c) and (e)

(4) (b), (d) and (f)

Answer: (4)

 

5. Assertion (A): All teaching should aim at ensuring learning.

Reason (R): All learning results from teaching.

Choose the correct answer from the following code:

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(2) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

(4) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

Answer: (3)

 

6. There are two sets given below. Set – I specifies the types of research, while Set –II indicates their characteristics. Match the two and given your answer by selecting the appropriate code.

Set – I (Research types)

Set – II (Characteristics)

(a) Fundamental research

(i) Finding out the extent of perceived impact of an intervention

(b) Applied research

(ii) Developing an effective explanation through theory building

(c) Action research

(iii) Improving an existing situation through use of interventions

(d) Evaluative research

(iv) Exploring the possibility of a theory for use in various situations

 

(v) Enriching technological resources

Codes:

(a)        (b)        (c)        (d)

(1)        (ii)        (iv)       (iii)       (i)

(2)        (v)        (iv)       (iii)       (ii)

(3)        (iii)       (ii)        (iii)       (iv)

4          (ii)        (iii)       (iv)       (v)

Answer: (1)

 

7. Which of the sets of activities best indicate the cyclic nature of action research strategy?

(1) Reflect, Observe, Plan, Act

(2) Observe, Act, Reflect, Plan

(3) Act, Plan, Observe, Reflect

(4) Plan, Act, Observe, Reflect

Answer: (4)

 

8. Which of the following sequence of research steps is nearer to scientific method?

(1) Suggested solution of the problem, Deducing the consequences of the solution, Perceiving the problem situation, Location of the difficulty and testing the solutions.

(2) Perceiving the problem situation, Locating the actual problem and its definition, Hypothesizing, Deducing the consequences of the suggested solution and Testing the hypothesis in action.

(3) Defining a problem, Identifying the causes of the problem, Defining a population, Drawing a sample, Collecting data and Analysing results.

(4) Identifying the causal factors, Defining the problem, Developing a hypothesis, Selecting a sample, Collecting data and arriving at generalization and Conclusions.

Answer: (2)

 

9. The problem of ‘research ethics’ is concerned with which aspect of research activities?

(1) Following the prescribed format of a thesis

(2) Data analysis through qualitative or quantitative technique

(3) Defining the population of research

(4) Evidence based research reporting

Answer: (4)

 

10. In which of the following activities, potential for nurturing creative and critical thinking is relatively greater?

(1) Preparing research summary

(2) Presenting a seminar paper

(3) Participation in research conference

(4) Participation in a workshop

Answer: (3)

11. Differentiation between acceptance and non-acceptance of certain stimuli in classroom communication is the basis of:

(1) Selective expectation of performance

(2) Selective affiliation to peer groups

(3) Selective attention

(4) Selective morality

Answer: (3)

 

12. Assertion (A): The initial messages to students in the classroom by a teacher need not be critical to establish interactions later.

Reason (R): More control over the communication process means more control over what the students are learning.

Codes:

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(2) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

(4) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

Answer: (4)

 

13. Assertion (A): To communicate well in the classroom is a natural ability.

Reason (R): Effective teaching in the classroom demands knowledge of the communication process.

Code:

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(2) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

(4) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

Answer: (4)

 

14. Assertion (A): Classroom communication is a transactional process.

Reason (R): A teacher does not operate under the assumption that students’ responses are purposive. Select the correct code for your answer:

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(2) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

(4) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

Answer: (3)

 

15. Which of the following set of statements is correct for describing the human communication process?

(a) Non-verbal communication can stimulate ideas.

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(b) Communication is a learnt ability.

(c) Communication is not a universal panacea.

(d) Communication cannot break-down.

(e) More communication means more effective learning by students.

(f) Value of what is learnt through classroom communication is not an issue for students.

Codes:

(1) (a), (c), (e) and (f)

(2) (b), (d), (e) and (f)

(3) (a), (b), (c) and (d)

(4) (a), (d), (e) and (f)

Answer: (3)

16.  The next term in the series -1, 5, 15, 29, ________, … is

(1) 36

(2) 47

(3) 59

(4) 63

Answer: (2)

 

17. The next term in the series: ABD, DGK, HMS, MTB, SBL, ________, … is:

(1) ZKU

(2) ZCA

(3) ZKW

(4) ZKU

Answer: (3)

 

18. If VARANASI is coded as WCUESGZQ, then the code of KOLKATA will be:

(1) LOQOZEH

(2) HLZEOOQ

(3) ZELHOQO

(4) LQOOFZH

Answer: (4)

 

19. Introducing, Rakesh to her husband a women said, “His brother’s father is the only son of my grandfather”. The woman is related to Rakesh as:

(1) Aunt

(2) Mother

(3) Sister

(4) Daughter

Answer: (3)

 

20. Two numbers are in the ratio 2: 5. If 16 is added to both the numbers, their ratio becomes 1: 2. The numbers are:

(1) 16, 40

(2) 20, 50

(3) 28, 70

(4) 32, 80

Answer: (4)

21. Superiority of intellect depends upon its power of concentration on one theme in the same way as a concave mirror collects all the rays that strike upon it into one point.

(1) Mathematical

(2) Psychological

(3) Analogical

(4) Deductive

Answer: (3)

 

22. Given below are two premises (A and B). Four conclusions are drawn from them. Select the code that states validity drawn conclusion (s) (taking the premises individually or jointly). Premises:

(A) Most of the dancers are physically fit.

(B) Most of the singers are dancers.

Conclusions:

(a) Most of the singers are physically fit.

(b) Most of the dancers are singers.

(c) Most of the physically fit persons are dancers.

(d) Most of the physically fit persons are singers.

Code:

(1) (a) and (b)

(2) (b) and (c)

(3) (c) and (d)

(4) (d) and (a)

Answer: (2)

 23. Which one among the following is a presupposition in inductive reasoning?

(1) Law of identity

(2) Unchangeability in nature

(3) Harmony in nature

(4) Uniformity of nature

Answer: (4)

 24. If the proposition ‘domestic animals are hardly ferocious’ is taken to be false, which of the following proposition/propositions can be claimed to be certainly true? Select the correct code:

Propositions:

(a) All domestic animals are ferocious.

(b) Most of the domestic animals are ferocious.

(c) No domestic animal is ferocious.

(d) Some domestic animals are non-ferocious.

Code:

(1) (a) and (b)

(2) (a) only

(3) (c) and (d)

(4) (b) only

Answer: (1)

25. Which one of the following statements is not correct in the context of Venn diagram method?

(1) It is a method of testing the validity of arguments.

(2) It represents both the premises of a syllogism in one diagram.

(3) It requires two overlapping circles for the two premises of a standard-form categorical syllogism.

(4) It can be used to represent classes as well as propositions.

Answer: (3)

26. Which of the following statements, regarding the term ICT is/are TRUE? P: ICT is an acronym that stands for Indian Classical Technology. Q: Converging technologies that exemplify ICT include the merging of audio-visual, telephone and computer networks through a common cabling system.

(1) P Only

(2) Q Only

(3) P and Q

(4) Neither P nor Q

Answer: (2)

 27. A new Laptop has been produced that weighs less, is smaller and uses less power previous Laptop models. Which of the following technologies has been used to accomplish this?

(1) Universal Serial Bus Mouse

(2) Faster Random Access Memory

(3) Blu Ray Drive

(4) Solid State Hard Drive

Answer: (4)

 28. Given the following email fields, which of the email addresses will ‘swami’ be able to see when he receives the message? Mail-

To…    ram@test. com

Cc…    raj@test. com; ravi@test.com

Bcc…  swami@test. com; rama@test. com

Codes:

(1) ram@test. com

(2) ram@test. com; raj@test. com; ravi@test. com

(3) ram@test. com; rama@test. com

(4) ram@test. com; rama@test. com; raj@test. com; ravi@test. com

Answer: (2)

 29. Put the following units of storage into the correct order, starting with the smallest unit first and going down to the largest unit:

(a) Kilobyte

(b) byte

(c) Megabyte

(d) Terabyte

(e) Gigabyte

(f) Bit

Give your answer from the following code:

(1) (f), (b), (a), (c), (d), (e)

(2) (f), (b), (a), (d), (e), (c)

(3) (f), (b), (a), (c), (e), (d)

(4) (f), (b), (a), (d), (c), (e)

Answer: (3)

 30. With regard to computer memory, which of the following statement (s) is/are TRUE? P: Read Only Memory (ROM) is ‘volatile’ memory. Q: Random Access Memory (RAM) is ‘volatile’ memory. R: Secondary Memory is ‘volatile’ memory.

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(1) P only

(2) Q only

(3) P and Q only

(4) P and R only

Answer: (2)

31.  ‘Fly ash’ produced in thermal power plants is an ecofriendly resource for use in:

(a) Agriculture as micro-nutrient

(b) Wasteland development

(c) Dam and water holding structures

(d) Brick industry

Choose the correct answer from the code given below:

(1) (a), (b) and (d) only

(2) (b), (c) and (d) Only

(3) (a), (c) and (d) Only

(4) (a), (b), (c) and (d)

Answer: (4)

 32. Which of the following types of natural disasters has no definite beginning and end?

(1) Earthquakes

(2) Landsides

(3) Hurricanes

(4) Droughts

Answer: (4)

 33. Assertion (A): Indoor air pollution is serious hazard.

Reason (R): The dispersal of air pollutants is rather limited in indoor environment. Choose the correct answer from the code given below:

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

(2) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

(3) (A) is true and (R) is false.

(4) Both (A) and (R) are false.

Answer: (1)

 34. In terms of their contribution to the total power generation in India, Identify the correct sequence of energy sources – Thermal Power Plants (TPP), Large Hydropower Projects (LHP), Nuclear Energy (NE) and Renewable Energy (RE) which includes solar energy, wind energy, biomass and small hydropower projects.

(1) TPP > RE > LHP > NE

(2) TPP > LHP > RE > NE

(3) LHP > TPP > RE > NE

(4) LHP > TPP > NE > RE

Answer: (1)

 35. Which of the following is considered as major source of pollution in rivers of India?

(1) Unregulated small scale industry

(2) Untreated sewage

(3) Agricultural run-off

(4) Thermal power plants

Answer: (2)

 36. India has the largest Higher Education System in the World after:

(a) The United States of America

(b) Australia

(c) China

(d) United Kingdom (UK)

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

(1) (a), (b), (c) and (d)

(2) (a), (b) and (c) only

(3) (a), (c) and (d) only

(4) (a) and (c) only

Answer: (4)

 37. Prime Minister Research Fellowship is for students pursuing Ph. D programme in:

(1) State and Central Universities

(2) Central Universities, IISc, IITs, NITs, IISERs and IIITs

(3) IISc, IITs, NITs, IISERs, IIITs, State and Central Universities

(4) IITs and IISc

Answer: (4)

 38. Leader of the opposition is a member of committees which select:

(a) The central information Commissioner

(b) The Central Vigilance Commissioner

(c) The Chairperson of National Human Rights Commission

(d) The Chairperson of National Commission for women

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

(1) (a), (b), (c) and (d)

(2) (a), (b) and (c) only

(3) (a), (c) and (d) only

(4) (a), (b) and (d) only

Answer: (2)

 39. Which of the following statements are correct about gender budgeting?

(a) It is separates budget addressing the specific needs of women.

(b) It assesses the impact of government budget on women.

(c) It is an accounting exercise.

(d) It is another budgeting innovation.

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

(1) (b) and (d) only

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(2) (a) and (d) only

(3) (a), (c) and (d) only

(4) (a) and (b) only

Answer: (1)

 40. Which of the following are the barriers to citizen-centric administration in India?

(a) Wooden and inflexible attitude of the civil servants

(b) Ineffective implementation of laws and rules

(c) Awareness of rights and duties of citizens

(d) Lack of job opportunities for the youth Select the correct answer from the code given below:

(1) (a), (b), (c) and (d)

(2) (a), (b) and (c) only

(3) (a), (b) and (d) only

(4) (a) and (b) only

 

 

Thursday, 10 March 2022

UGC (Computer application) net based solved multiple questions from Software Engineering

 

                                             UGC net based solved previous question papers

                                                                Software Engineering

                                                               

                                                        Dec-2017

1. Software does not wear-out in the traditional sense of term, but software does tend to deteriorate as it evolves, because:

Ans. Multiple change request introduce errors in component interactions.

2. Software re-engineering is concerned with

  Ans. Re-organizing and modifying existing software systems to make them more maintainable.

3. Which of the following is not a key issue stressed by an agile philosophy of software engineering?

    a. The importance of self- organizing teams as well as communication and collaboration between team members and customers.

b. Recognition that change represents opportunity.

c. Emphasis on rapid delivery of software that satisfies the customer.

d. Having a separate testing phase after a build phase.

Ans. d

4. What is the normal order of activities in which traditional software testing is organized

   Ans. Unit testing, Integration testing, Validation testing, System testing

5. Which of the following testing techniques ensures that the software product runs correctly after the changes during maintenance?

  Ans. Regression Testing   

                                                        Dec-2015 

6.  Which of the following statements, related to the requirements phase in Software Engineering ,is incorrect

  a. "Requirement validation" is one of the activities in the requirements phase.

   b. "Prototyping" is one of the methods for requirement analysis.

    c. "Modelling-oriented approach" is one of the methods for specifying the functional specifications.

    d. "Function points" is one of the most commonly used size  metric for requirements.

Ans. c

                                                  dec-2013

7. Which one of the following is not a step of requirement engineering?

    a. Requirement elicitation

     b. Requirement analysis

      c. requirement design

       d. Requirement documentation

    Ans. c

8. Testing of software with actual data and in actual environment is called

    Ans. Beta testing

9. Software Configuration Management is the discipline for systematically controlling

    The changes due to the evolution of work products as the project proceeds.

     The changes due to defects being found and then fixed.

     The changes due to requirement changes.

10. Software engineering is an engineering discipline that is concerned with

    Ans. All aspects of software production

11. Are we building the right product? This statement refers to

   Ans. Validation

12. The ----- model is preferred for software development when the requirement are not clear.

     Ans. Evolutionary Model

13. Which of the following is not included in waterfall model?

    a. Requirement analysis b. Risk analysis c. Design  d. Coding

Ans. b

14. The extent to which a software tolerates the unexpected problems, is termed as:

   Ans.  Robustness

15. In software testing, how the error , fault and failure are related to each other?

    Ans. Error leads to fault and fault leads to failure.

                                       Match the following

16. Corrective -Concerned with fixing errors that are observed when the software is in use.

       Adaptive - Concerned with the change in the software that takes place to make the software adaptable to new environment(both hardware and software)

Perfective - Concerned with the change in the software that takes place to make the software adaptable to changing user requirements.

Preventive - Concerned with performing activities to reduce the software complexity thereby improving program understandability and increasing software maintainability.

17. Match each application/software design concept 

    Coupling - Reliance of a code module upon other code modules.

    Cohesion - Focus of a code upon a single code.

     Scalable - Easy to add functionality to a software without having to redesign it

    Readable - Easy to visually inspect the design of the software and understand its purpose.

18. Software safety is quality assurance activity that focuses on hazards that 

    May cause an entire system to fail

19. Which of the following sets represent five stages defined by Capability Maturity Model(CMM) is increasing order of maturity

   Ans. Initial, Repeatable , Defined , Managed , Optimized

20. Software engineering is an engineering discipline that is concerned with

     Ans. All aspects of software production

17. 

   



Monday, 14 February 2022

UGC (Computer application) net based solved multiple questions from Compiler

 

                  UGC (Computer science)net based solved multiple questions

                                                       Compiler


1.  If language L={0,1}*,then reversed language L^R

Ans. {0,1}*

2. Recursive descent Parsers are a type of

 Ans. LL parsers

3. If L1 be the class of languages accepted by finite state machines and L2 be the class of languages represented by regular expressions then,

Ans. L1=L2

4. Which of the following is a type of Top -down parsing?

  Ans. Predictive parsing

5. Yacc is a 

    Ans. Parser generator

6. Which among the following is true of LL(1) grammar?

   Ans. Not ambiguous

7. A grammar with the property that no production right side has 2 adjacent non-terminals is called

Ans. Operator grammar

8. If r and s are regular expressions denoting languages L(r) and L(s),then (r)/(s)is a regular expression denoting

Ans. L(r) U L(s)

9. The automation accepting the regular expression of any number of a's is

   Ans. a*

10. Which among the following is false

  a. No LR(1) grammar is ambiguous.

 b. Every LL(1) grammar is  an LR(1)grammar.

c. The regular expressions (a/b)* and (a*/b*)* are equivalent

d. Not all grammars can  be converted to an equivalent operator grammar.

Ans. D

11. Which among the following is an NP - Complete problem?

     3SAT Problem +Travelling Salesman +Graph 3 coloring 

12. The solution to the count-to infinity problem in which a router never advertises the cost of a destination to its neighbour N, if N is the next hop to that destination, is called

 Ans. Split- horizon

13. A complier which runs on one machine and produces target code for another is called a

   Ans. Cross compiler

14. Which among the following types of languages are accepted both by Finite and Pushdown automata?

  Ans. Regular

15. Consider the following two languages over {a,b}

     L1 - The set of strings beginning and ending with an a 

    L2 - the set of strings with the same number of a's and b$

  which of the following is true about L1 and L2?

  Ans. L1 is regular and L2 is context free but not regular.

16. Classify into one of the alternatives the grammar denoted by the productions 

       S---->aB, S---->bA, A--->a, A--->aS ,A--->bAA ,B--->b , B---->nS ,B---->aBB, AB---->BA

Ans. Context sensitive grammar

17. Context sensitive grammar can be recognized by a 

   Ans. Linearly bounded memory machine

18. YACC is a program in UNIX used for

    Ans. Automatic parser generation

19. A parsing algorithm used in top down parsing is

      Ans. LL

20. DAG used in  a complier for

   Ans. Parsing

21. Which of the following is true about a cross compiler?

      It is written in the machine code of one processor and produces code for another processor

22. Which of the following phases of a compiler is not in the backend?

     a. Syntax analysis

     b. Intermediate code generation

      c. Code generation

       d. Code optimization

     Ans. a

23. For a given grammar, which of among following parsing tables are likely to have the most number of states?

    a. SLR    b. LALR   c.LR(0) d. LR(1)

Ans. LR(1)

24. Which among the following is not used for intermediate code generation?

    Ans. Parse trees

25. Which of the following identifiers used in LEX contains the sequence of characters forming a token?

    a. yylval  b. yyerror  c. yytext  d. yystack

   Ans. c

26. Which of the following operations is context free languages not closed under

      Ans. Intersection

27. Consider the following grammar

      S---->(S) S ---->x 

  Which of the following statements is (are)true?

  i. The grammar is ambiguous

  ii. The grammar is suitable for top- down parsing

   iii. The grammar is suitable for bottom - up parsing

   Ans. iii

28. Which of the following are not regular?

    a. Strings of even number of a's

    b.  Strings of a's whose length is a prime number.

     c. Set of all palindromes made up of a's and b's.

     d. Strings of a's whose length is a perfect  square.

Ans. b,c and d

29. Consider the language L1=null set and L2={1} which one of the following represents L1*UL2*L1*

    Ans. 1*

30. Given the following two languages

    L1={a^nb^n|n>=0,n#100}

    L2= {w subset {a,b,c}*|na(w)=nb(w)=nc(w)}

which of the following options is correct?

 Ans.  Both L1 and L2 are context free language.

31. Let G =(V,T,S,P)be a context -free grammar such that every one of its productions is of the form A---->v, with |v|=K>1.The derivation tree for any W subset L(g)has a height such that

Ans. logk|W|<=h<=Klogk|W|

32. Consider the following statements related to compiler construction

    a. Lexical analysis is specified by context free grammars and implemented by pushdown automata

    b. Syntax analysis is specified by regular expressions and implemented by finite- state machine.

Ans. Neither a or b

33. The process of assigning load addresses to the various parts of the program and adjusting the code and data in the program to reflect the assigned addresses is called ---------

  Ans. Relocation

34. Which of the following derivations does a top-down parser use while parsing an input string? The input string is scanned from left to right.

  Ans. left most derivation

35. Given the following statements

    S1. If L is a regular language then the language {uv|u belongs to L,v belongs to L^R}is also regular.

     S2. L={ww^R}is regular language

Ans. S1 is correct and S2 is not correct

36. The context free grammar for the language

    L={a^nb^m|n<=m+3,n>=0,m>=0} is

  Ans. S--->aaaA|aaA|aA|lamda, A--->aAb|B, B--->Bb|lamda

37. Given the following statements

   S1.- SLR uses follow information to guide reductions. In case of LR and LALR parsers, the look -aheads are associated with the items and they make use of the left context available to the parser.

S2. - LR grammar is a larger sub class of context free grammar as compared to that SLR and LALR grammars.

Ans. both S1 and S2 are correct

38. The context free grammar given by

     S---->XYX

     X--->aX|bX|lamda

      Y--->bbb

  generates the language which is defined by regular expression:

   (a+b)*(bbb)(a+b)*

39. Given the following two languages

    L1 = {a^n b a^n| n>0}

L2 ={a^n b a^n b^n+1|n>0}

  Which of the following is correct?

  Ans. L1 is context free grammar and L2 is not context free grammar

40. There are exactly --------- different finite automata with three states x, y and z  over the alphabet {a,b}where x is always the start state.

Ans. 5832

41. Which of the following regular expressions, each describing a lanugage of binary numbers that represents non-negative decimal values, does not include even values?

a. 0*1+0*1* b. 0*1*+1* c. 0*1*0*1+  d. 0+1*0*1*

where {+,*}are quantification characters.

Ans. c

42. Which of the following statements is/are TRUE?

    a. The grammar S-->SS |a is ambiguous.(Where S is the start symbol)

    b. The grammar S--->0S1|01S|absilon is ambiguous.

    c. The grammar

S---->T/U

T--->xSy|xy|absilon

U--->yT

generates a language consisting of the string yxxyy

Ans.  

43. Which of the following statement is false? (question paper Jan 2018)

   Ans.  The families of recursively enumerable and recursive languages are closed under reversal

44. Which of the following pairs have different expressive power?

   Ans. Single -tape-turing machine and multi-dimensional turing machine.

45.  Given the following two statements

  1. L={w|na(w)=nb(w)}is deterministic context free language but not linear.

2.   L={a^nb^n}U{a^nb^2n}is linear, but not deterministic context free language. 

Ans. 1 is true,2 is not true

46. Consider the following statements related to compiler construction

    a. Lexical analysis is specified by context free grammars and implemented by pushdown automata.

    b. Syntax Analysis is specified by regular expression and implemented by finite-state machine.

Which of the statement(s) is/are correct?

Ans. neither a nor b

  







    


Thursday, 10 February 2022

UGC (Computer application) net based solved multiple questions from UNIX

 

                                 UGC net based solved multiple questions

                                                             UNIX


1. The Unix incode contains ---------------pointers to data blocks and ------------- pointers to indirect blocks.

Ans. 12,3

2. The BSD version of UNIX was developed by

   Ans. University of Berkeley

3. An example of a file system whose contents are not actually stored anywhere, but are computed on demand is

 Ans. proc

4.  The UNIX shell 

     Ans. forms the interface between the user and the Kernal

5. The invalid file in UNIX from among the ones given below is

   Ans. /bin/unix

6. The very first process created by the Kernal in UNIX is

   Ans. init

7. Which of the following commands can be executed by a user for knowing the number of users logged in a UNIX system

Ans. who

Monday, 7 February 2022

UGC (Computer application) net based solved multiple questions from Linux

 

                                    UGC net based solved multiple questions

                                                             LINUX


1. In Linux ,the subdirectory that contains system configuration files including user passwords

  Ans. /etc

2. Linux partitions are created technology used in Ethernet

  Ans. EXT3

3. The environment variables in Linux that contain a list of directories the shell automatically recognizes?

  Ans. $PATH

4. A system call in Linux operating system to create a new child process, which is a copy of parent process?

 Ans. fork

5.  What is returned by a fork() call to the child process?

   Ans. 0

Friday, 28 January 2022

UGC (Computer application) net based solved multiple questions Computer system and architecture

 


                       UGC net Computer Application solved  multiple questions

                                                Computer system and architecture)

1.A technique in which system resources are shared among multiple users

  Ans. Multiplexing

2. Memory bank experiencing too much contention from processor

  Ans. Thrash

3. Simplified form of the Boolean expression Y=A'BC'D'+ABC'D'+A'BCD'+ABCD' is

   Ans. BD'

4. ~(pVq)=~p^~q is a famous law in logic known as

  Ans. De Morgan's law

5. A full adder circuit with x, y and z as input bits produces an output the binary sum represented by

  Ans. 

6. In 80287 is

  Ans. Co- processor

7. The maximum size of main memory of a computer is determined by

   Ans. Address bus

8. In computer terminology POST stands for

   Ans. Power on self test

9. Not an assembler directive

   Ans. XCHG

10. In a CDMA system a code for a certain system should have

   Ans. Good auto correlation with other codes and Orthogonality to other codes

11. 8251 is a

    Ans. USART

12. The basic types of programmable arrays are made of -----------

     Ans. AND gates and OR gates

13. An assembler is

     Ans. Machine  dependent

14. Von Neumann architecture is

      Ans. SSID

15. The first modern computer was called ------

    Ans. ENIAC

16. If L is a lattice, then for every a and b in L which among the following is correct?

      Ans. av(bvc)=(avb)vc

17. p------>q is logically equivalent to

    Ans. ~pvq

18. Which one of the following proposition is a tautology?

     Ans. pv(p--->q)

19.In the write operation of DMA, the data is transferred

    Ans. From I/O to memory

20. A circuit that is used to store one bit of data is

    Ans. Flip Flop

21. An n bit microprocessor has

    Ans. n bit instruction register

22. Given  a 4 input AND gate, how many inputs must be HIGH in order for the output of the logic gate to go HIGH

  Ans. All four inputs

23. Which level of RAID uses mirroring to achieve redundancy?

    Ans. 1

24. Which IEEE standard is refers to fast Ethernet?

    Ans. 802.3u

25. The new generation Intel processor with the IA-64 architecture is called?

     Ans. Itanium

26. Which among the following chips is a programmable peripheral interface?

     Ans. 82C55A

27. Which among the following is a little -endian machine?

     Ans. DEC Alpha

28. IEEE802.11 standard is known as

     Ans. CSMA/CA

29. The designation for an electronics standard for connecting devices to your personal computer is

      Ans. IEEE1394

30. Flip flop is a basic structure of the device?

    Ans. Memory

31. ~qvp is equilvalent to

    Ans. q---->p

32. Totem pole output is characteristic of the logic IC family

    Ans. TTL

33. A XOR B is equivalent to

    Ans. (A+B)-(B bar +A bar )

34. Which among the following flipflops is a modification to the R-S flip-flop that avoids its intermediate state?

   Ans. D flip-flop

35. A register organized to allow moving left to right operations is called a

    Ans. Shift register

36. De Morgan's theorem states that NAND gate is equivalent to a bubbled ----------- gate

     Ans. OR

37. Standard TTL has a  multiple emitter input transistor and a --------output

    Ans. Totem-pole

38. The Boolean function x'y'+xy+x'y

    Ans. x'+y

39 Which of the  following logic families highest noise immunity

   Ans. HTL

40. What is the 2's complement of -24 in a 16 bit micro computer

   Ans. 1111 1111 1110 1000


     


Friday, 21 January 2022

UGC (Computer application)net based solved multiple questions from DBMS

 

                       UGC net Computer Application solved  multiple questions

                                                DBMS(Database Management System)


1. Data abstraction means

   Ans. Putting together essential features without including background details.

2. A famous technique used in data warehousing

    Ans. OLAP

3. With QBE, inserting records from one or more source tables into a single target table can be achieved        by 

  Ans. Append action query

4. An attribute or set of attributes within one relation that matches the candidate key of some relation

  Ans. Foreign key

5. A subset of data in a data warehouse in the form of summary data related to  a particular department or business function 

Ans. Data  Marts

6. The normalization of  1NF relations to 2NF involves

Ans. Removal of partial dependencies

7. Tuple in relational algebra refers to

   Ans. Row

8. In relational algebra the query that finds customers who have a balance of over 800 is

 Ans. Pi customer_name(sigma balance>800(deposit)

9. The language component of DBMS which can be embedded in a program is

  Ans. The data manipulation language

10. A subschema expresses

   Ans. The external view

11. The language that has recently become the defacto standard for interacting application programs with relational database system is

   Ans. SQL

12. The view of total database content is

   Ans. Conceptual view

13. A foreign key imposes a specific kind of integrity to related tables. What is the name of the integrity?

  Ans. Referential

14. The -----------consists of individual user views of portions of the database.

  Ans. External level schema

15. An attribute that is used as a linkage from records in one table to a record in another table is specified as the---------

Ans. Foreign key

16. Data is stored on computer systems in files. The two basic file types are

  Ans. Master and Transaction

17. Which of the following cannot be blank(Null)

  Ans. Primary key

18. Third normal form is a term used to describe

   Ans. A database that is well structured

19. Select the option that matches the order of the languages to the order of the functions.

Querying, creating, modifying the database.

  Ans. DQL,DDL,DML

20. Which SQL command is a projection operation?

  Ans. SELECT

21. The ------------ clause is used to list the attributes desired in the result of a query?

    Ans. SELECT

22. We express queries in QBE by

     Ans. Skeleton table. 

23. ------------is a set of permitted values for each attribute

     Ans. Domain. 

24. Minimal super keys are called

     Ans. Candidate key

25. A relation is in ----------------every non-key attribute is irreducibly dependent on the primary key.

     Ans. 2NF

26. A statement that the system executes automatically when a database related event occurs

     Ans. Trigger

27. If a relation is in BCNF then it is in

      Ans. 3NF

28. The margin of a word document can be displayed on the horizontal or vertical ruler with the mouse        and the

   Ans.  Alt Key

29. E-R modelling technique is

    Ans. Top-Down structure

30. Data items stored as grouped items is

    Ans. Record

31. data items are fragmented,  replicated and propagated in 

    Ans. DDBMS

32. In data manipulation the first element of T[5] is

    Ans. T[0]

33. Processed data is called

     Ans. Information

34. Which of the among the following DMLs given below is a domain calculus language

     Ans. QBE

35. A relation in BCNF with no multivalued dependencies is in 

    Ans. 4NF

36. From a table STUDENT with the fields ROLL NO.,NAME,MARK1,MARK2 and MARK3 which of the following SQL command list student with highest mark in mark1 field

 Ans. SELECT ROLL NO.MARK1 FROM STUDENT WHERE MARK1=SELECT MAX(MARK1)FROM STUDENT

37. Which of the following data structure is widely used in a network model RDBMS?

    Ans. Graph

38. Tables derived from the ER diagram are

    Ans. Are always in 1NF

39. Spurious tuple may occur due to

     1.Bad normalization

      2. Theta join

       3. Updating tables from join

     Ans. 1 and 3

40. If A---->BC,B---->E,CD----->EF hold in a relation scheme R(A,B,C,D,E,F).Which of the following functional dependencies also hold?

    Ans. AD---->CD

41.In a relation scheme R with attribute A,B,C which of the following defines the augmentation property?

   Ans.  If A---->B holds then AC----->BC where C is a subset of R

42. Discovery of hidden patterns in a very large database is called

    Ans. Data mining

43. SQL is 

    Ans. Data definition language and Data manipulation language

44. The way an application views the data from the database that the application uses is a 

     Ans. Sub schema

45. Which of the following is not characteristic of a relational database model

     Ans. Tree like structure

46. Which of the following SQL statement is not a DML statement

     a) CREATE  b)SELECT c)UPDATE  d)INSERT

Ans. a

47. Which normal form is considered adequate for normal relational database design

   Ans. 3NF

48. In write locks all distributed database concurrency control strategy

     Ans. A transaction is said to have write-lock on item A whenever it has  write lock on any copy of A

49.  A ---------- is responsible for the design and control of a company's database

    Ans. DBA